Showing posts with label Hebrew. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Hebrew. Show all posts

Saturday, December 12, 2009

What Bible Translation Sounds Like

Sometimes Bible translation sounds like gibberish. But gibberish can sound really important, even condescending. Let's look at an example in a moment. Before we listen in on biblistic language, here are a couple of non-biblical true stories of mine.

First Story. Someone really important to me once questioned one of my words. That somebody is Carolyn Osiek, a New Testament scholar who is a feminist who served on my dissertation committee. As we were in the Greek restaurant of all places talking about how I was accusing Aristotle of coining technical-and-abstract words to box in others, she turned the conversation to me (on me?) to ask: "Are you coining the word feministic?" "What word would you use?" I retorted. "Something like, 'in feminist ways' or 'by means that are feminist'," she replied. And she could have explained, "feministic sounds like you're looking down on feminists"; but she didn't need to say anything. I stopped using the word for a while, and when I did use it tried to make sure no one mistook me for Aristotle. A little later, I blogged this post on how rhetorical "-istic" can be. How little parts of words sound like big, condescending stuff.

Second Story. My college roommate from Japan was a helpful tutor when I was taking classes in Japanese language. My private lessons included listening to and trying to say tongue twisters like, "なまむぎ なまごめ なまたまご." Of course, I heard that as, "namamugi namagome namatamago," which hardly rolled off my tongue. This, of course, means 生麦生米生卵. It might be something you hear in a kitchen (if not as a joke on Japanese language learners): "raw wheat, raw rice, raw eggs." Even if I'd wanted to make my roommate-tutor feel my pain, I couldn't. He didn't stumble over my mother tongue the way I tripped over his. He'd grown up bilingual, and he spoke his English Rs and Ls and Ws and Fs as fluently as I did. The lessons were playful ("-mugi, -gome, -mago") but pronounced a difference between us. How little parts of words sound like big, condescending stuff.

So, now, there's this story in the Bible. It's also become a story of bible translation. This is the example of gibberish I was talking about at the beginning of this post. Sounding really important and smart, the translation usually goes like this:
Jephthah captured the shallow crossings of the Jordan River, and whenever a fugitive from Ephraim tried to go back across, the men of Gilead would challenge him. “Are you a member of the tribe of Ephraim?” they would ask. If the man said, “No, I’m not,” they would tell him to say “Shibboleth.” If he was from Ephraim, he would say “Sibboleth,” because people from Ephraim cannot pronounce the word correctly. Then they would take him and kill him at the shallow crossings of the Jordan. In all, 42,000 Ephraimites were killed at that time.
This really is one of the best translations of Judges 12:5-6 in my opinion because it forgoes the really strange English word "fords" and uses the much-clearer phrase "shallow crossings" instead. This is the New Living Translation. But, like every other translation of the Bible I've heard, there's the weird "Shibboleth" / "Sibboleth" thing that seems give us English readers (especially non-Ephramites) some kind of insider track here. We'd more quickly side with the killers than the killed here.

What we don't get by the sounds-only translation is what the Hebrew word שִׁבֹּלֶת means to some of the early readers of the story. Quite literally, it's an ambiguous term that can mean either "corn stalk or grain waves" or "water flood or stream." And the Jews translating this word into Greek (in the Septuagint, "Judges A" AND "Judges B") make the Hebrew mean either σύνθημα or στάχυς [sun-thema OR stachys]. The first Greek word is just a signal to the reader who seems to know the story well:  it means something like a "theme together" or an "inside joke" (or a "password" -- which is how translator Philip E. Satterthwaite moves the Greek into English in the New English Translation of the Septuagint).  The second Greek word, in this context, is sometimes translated into English as "Stachys."  (And that's exactly how English translator Sir Lancelot Brenton translates it while Satterthwaite clarifies the word to mean "Ear-of-Corn"). The Greek word στάχυς, of course, is ambiguous. Greek readers know it means "ear of corn" but it also is used for the "lower part of the abdomen."

So if you read the story in Greek translation from the Hebrew, then it is funny because the Ephramites can't pronounce "corn stalk" and they get stabbed in the point of their body that looks like a corn stalk: they get a sword run through the lower part of their abdomen.  Or if you read the Judges A translation from Hebrew to Greek, then it's more serious because the translator is just reminding Jewish readers how one group used a password (an inside joke) on the other group, deadly serious stuff.  In both Jewish translations (from Hebrew to their Hellene), the reader never hears the Ephramites stumbling over the word (i.e., as if saying "Sibboleth").  The silence is important, I think, because the translators are giving a nod to their readers and not entirely trying to explain what would be understood if listening to the story in Hebrew.  (Sylvie Honigman, the scholar in Jerusalem who's looked at the legend of the Septuagint, says that the Greek here is in the Homeric not the Alexandrian [or Aristotelian] paradigm -- that's important to me as I look at how Aristotle abstracts language and the early Greeks refused to do that.  The Jews, with their scripture, are much more playful than many of our English translations - in Aristotelian fashion - give them credit for).

And if you read the story in Hebrew translated into as playful English, then it goes something like this. And here I give apologies to my good Japanese language tutor:

So they say to him,
"So say 'cornstalk rows like water flows'."
So he says "colnstark lows rike watel hrows."
So he can't rightly get it right.
So they seize him.
So they make his blood flow at the crossing of the Jordan.
So at that time some forty two thousand fall
some forty two thousand of the tribe
                                        of that twice-blessed second born of
fall

Now listen to the Hebrew:

וַיֹּאמְרוּ לֹו אֱמָר־נָא שִׁבֹּלֶת
וַיֹּאמֶר סִבֹּלֶת
וְלֹא יָכִין לְדַבֵּר כֵּן
וַיֹּאחֲזוּ אֹותֹו
וַיִּשְׁחָטוּהוּ אֶל־מַעְבְּרֹות הַיַּרְדֵּן
וַיִּפֹּל בָּעֵת הַהִיא מֵאֶפְרַיִם אַרְבָּעִים וּשְׁנַיִם אָלֶף׃

And hear the Greekistic translations:

Judges A
καὶ εἶπαν αὐτοῖς εἴπατε δὴ σύνθημα
[nothing's needed here]
καὶ οὐ κατηύθυναν τοῦ λαλῆσαι οὕτως
καὶ ἐπελάβοντο αὐτῶν
καὶ ἔσφαξαν αὐτοὺς ἐπὶ τὰς διαβάσεις τοῦ Ιορδάνου
καὶ ἔπεσαν ἐξ Εφραιμ ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ δύο τεσσαράκοντα χιλιάδες

Judges B
καὶ εἶπαν αὐτῷ εἰπὸν δὴ στάχυς
[nothing's needed here!]
καὶ οὐ κατεύθυνεν τοῦ λαλῆσαι οὕτως
καὶ ἐπελάβοντο αὐτοῦ
καὶ ἔθυσαν αὐτὸν πρὸς τὰς διαβάσεις τοῦ Ιορδάνου
καὶ ἔπεσαν ἐν τῷ καιρῷ ἐκείνῳ ἀπὸ Εφραιμ τεσσαράκοντα δύο χιλιάδες

Don't you hear how language keeps us out?  If it's "shibboleth" and we can say it, we think we're in.  But the Jews translating from Hebrew to their own Hellene didn't feel the need (in either Greek version) to separate out only the sounds of שִׁבֹּלֶת and σύνθημα or στάχυς.  The Hebrew writer of Judges seems to allow readers to play close attention to the interplay between the water crossing of the Jordan river and the word (i.e., water flowing like grain growing) used to trip up the Ephramites at that cross.  The Jews translating the Hebrew into their Greek, similarly, remind the readers that this is word play.  How it sounds can be fatal.  (In somebody's gibberish, that's just fatalistic?)

Tuesday, October 13, 2009

Mamma Mia! It’s the Abba Daddy debate again

Doug Chaplin posts "Mamma Mia! It’s the Abba Daddy debate again." He points us to Rick Brannan's post, reassures us “Abba” doesn't mean “Daddy” by sending us to Steve Caruso's post, and he makes a couple of astute points himself.

I also like his title but wanted to say a few more things on the subject. Mainly, I'm interested in the literary, rhetorical stuff here. (Maybe my feminist lens is too serious for the big dogs of biblioblogs - so I'll try to avoid the f-word again). There are three things I want to look at.

First, the old Jewish sacred writings have plenty of pre-Jesus allusions and prayers to God as 'Ab (אָבִ). There's Deuteronomy 32:6, where the Jewish translation from Hebrew to Greek is sou patēr (σου πατὴρ); and there's the address to God in Psalm 32:6, where the Hellene rendering is patēr mou (πατήρ μου); and there's Isaiah 9:6, the "everlasting father" part of which the Greek Septuagint does not include; but there's Isaiah 63:16 and Isaiah 64:8 respectively with the Hellene translations of sú kúrie patḕr and kúrie patḕr hēmȭn (σύ κύριε πατὴρ and κύριε πατὴρ ἡμῶν); and there's also God's own endorsement of people calling him 'Ab (אָבִ) in Jeremiah 3:4 and 3:19 -- which is put this way in very Jewish Greek: patéra kaléseté me (πατέρα καλέσετέ με).

I think the fact that the Hebrew God was called 'Ab (אָבִ) and Patēr long before Jesus bolsters Doug's points. Mark's transliteration of Jesus's Aramaic - the Greek sounds Αββα - and Paul's own use of the same would not be especially unusual. The fact that both Mark and Paul seem to use the term "in the context of obedience being difficult, yet having to be accepted" is a point well made, indeed.

But I wonder if there's something more rhetorical here. Aren't Mark and Paul appealing to audiences of Greeks and Jews, or at least Jews who read the Septuagint? Perhaps, the two writers are wanting bilingual redundancy here: abba, ho patḗr (αββα ὁ πατήρ). Perhaps a larger implicit message to listeners and readers is that God is father in any language.

Second, there's more evidence that Abba doesn't mean Daddy. There's BarAbbas, the name of the one Pilate chooses as a possible substitute for Jesus. This person figures in all four canonical gospels and in the Gospel of Peter. Some variant texts of Matthew's gospel actually say that his name is Jesus Barabbas. To the Jew who spoke Jerusalemic Aramaic and who read the Septuagint alongside the Hebrew scriptures, this name would sound something like, "Joshua Son of the Father." In Matthew 27:17, Pilate gives the choice - "Joshua Son of the Father or Joshua who is called Anointed" (Ἰησοῦν τὸν Βαρ-Αββᾶν ἢ Ἰησοῦν τὸν λεγόμενον χριστόν). Matthew later (vv 40, 43, and 54) brings out in Greek the fact that Jesus was seen by many to be the Son of God. The pairing of the two men with the same name is a strong pairing indeed. And yet when Matthew quotes Jesus crying out in Greek-transliterated Aramaic, he has him crying out to God (Ἠλί, Ἠλί), not to Abba. There is no hint of "Daddy" in any of this.

Third, as long as preachers aren't dogmatically preaching that Jesus was the first to pray to God as Father (like Christians must and Jews didn't), there's enough stretch in language that I think it's just fine to translate both abba (αββα) and patḗr (πατήρ) as Daddy. As I work with college level ESL students, we often talk about how words sound in English and in plenty of other languages too. The fact is that words for mother are never "second-language" words, learned when taught. The bilabial sounds /ma/ are often the first consistent, word-like sounds a nursing infant makes. The association with Mama is nearly subconscious and instantaneous. Some linguists have been quite concerned with such things. When we come to the Hebrew Bible, we see similar things. The name Moses, for example, is an Egyptian word easily made Hebrew in a play on Jewish phrases:

משה (Mosheh aka "Moses")
משה (mashah aka "draw out")
מים (mayim aka "[from] water(s)")

The sounds for mother are from mamama. The sounds we make for Papa come later as we're nursing. But even so, the lips are often used in basic primal form, as in abba and pappa. More developed terms for papapa are pater or tata or dada or daddy or father. Hence, abba sounds more basic than father, more like daddy perhaps than Father.
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Now, around all this talk of Abba, I have some of my own questions. Why is there the asymmetry in the bible with respect to males and females? Why does Paul (to the Colossians and Ephesians) address fathers but not mothers when giving household instructions to parents and children? And is that silence in any way related to what Carolyn Osiek has seen in the bible and in early Christianity? Osiek says, "The silence of most sources about the lives of female slaves in early Christian communities is a magnification of the common phenomenon of the silence of women's voices in general" (page 117 A Woman's Place: House Churches in Earliest Christianity coauthored with Margaret Y. MacDonald and Janet H. Tulloch. See also Early Christian Families in Context: an Interdisciplinary Dialogue with David L. Balch)

Thursday, May 21, 2009

Splitting Bible Words Into Two

Today, [in English,] “zealous” and “jealous” mean different things, and while there are zealots, there are no jealots. In Hebrew, on the other hand, the word never split into two, and to this day, a kana’i can be a jealous husband just as well as a Zealot. He still cannot, however, be a Canaanite, the Hebrew word for which is k’na’ani, not kana’i.

--Philologos, "Yes We Kana’i: On Language," The Jewish Daily Forward
The pseudonymous Philologos is answering a reader's question: "Zelotes is a Greek word used by Josephus that has made its way into English. Is there a Hebrew equivalent for it in the Talmud or Midrash?" And the answer points to "an amusing error in the Greek New Testament."

The error is revealed:
In the Gospels, one of Jesus’ 12 disciples is in several places referred to as Simon ho Zelotes, “Simon the Zealot”; yet in the third chapter of the Gospel of Mark, he is called Simon ho Kananaios — or, as the King James Version has it, “Simon the Canaanite.” On the face of it, this is absurd, since not only was Canaan no longer a term for Palestine in Jesus’ time, but all of Jesus’ other disciples were no less Palestinian Jews than Simon the Zealot. The epithet makes sense only if we assume that the original Greek text read Simon ho Kanaios, or “Simon the Kana’i,” and that a later Christian scribe who never had encountered the Hebrew word changed it to the more familiar though senseless Kananaios.
Would a Christian Bible reader or translator respond? How about a linguist or a Greek scholar or a theologian? Is this an "error"? Does Mark's Greek "split" a Hebrew word by mistranslation? Is our English more equal to this problematic binary Greek than it is to the original language of the Bible?

Sunday, November 25, 2007

The Good, the Baad, and the Translation of Psalm 23

I need some help here. Aristotle didn't translate, and he didn't use the word ψαλμὸς. But consistently, those who knew them well rendered תהילים (i.e., Tehilim, or the "praises") as Ψαλμοί (i.e., the Psalms, or the "strummings"). And today, Mr. Benyamin Pilant, who maintains the copyright for the Jewish Publication Society's English language TEHILIM, calls them the Book of Psalms.

The translation of this word seems good, and since the Septuagint it has seemed good enough.

But some time after the translation of the Jewish scriptures of all sorts into Greek, problems ensued. And now we all have a few questions in English. What answers can we find?

1. The disciple Ιωάννης (i.e., John or יָנִיב?) translated the Hebrew Aramaic words of his רַב (i.e., his rabbi, his teacher) into Greek this way:

Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ποιμὴν ὁ καλός
(or, in English: "I am the good shepherd")

But why?

Was John's a good translation or was it (as sheep might translate that) a baaad one?

2. Was Rabbi Joshua (i.e., יְהוֹשֻׁעַ or Ἰησους or Jesus) paraphrasing David's praise to God, when the shepherd boy after God's heart was singing this?

יְהוָה רֹעִי
(or "HaShem is my shepherd" / "'I am' / 'He is' / 'The Name' is my shepherd")?

And if Jesus adds "good" when it's not in the original is that baad (for sheep)?

3. Or was John looking at the Septuagint (as he seems to do when he begins his gospel of Jesus, giving a nod to the LXX beginning of Genesis)?

In other words, did John add "good" or ὁ καλός when translating what Jesus said?

And, if John was reading the LXX, is it baad that the Jewish translators (from Hebrew into Greek) lose "good" in the last verse of Psalm 23:

טוֹב וָחֶסֶד

becomes

καὶ τὸ ἔλεός σου

(or "Surely goodness and mercy"

becomes

"and your mercy")

And when losing "goodness," the baad Greek gains "you," a very personal (vocative, 2nd person personal pronoun) reference to "master my shepherd" that the Hebrew has lost in verse 6. Why?

4. What if John and his rav Jesus (or יָנִיב and יְהוֹשֻׁעַ / or Ιωάννης and Ἰησους) could read David's תהילים / Ψαλμοί both in Hebrew and in Greek? Would the differences they surely would have noticed have been ugly? Or is what gets lost and found in translation both good and bad?

Thursday, November 22, 2007

And (She) Said

בחר הוהיב ינרק המר הוהיב יבל ץלע רמאתו הנח ללפתתו
:ךתעושיב יתחמש יכ יביוא-לע יפ


και ειπεν εστερεωθη η καρδια μου εν κυριω υψωθη κερας μου εν θεω μου επλατυνθη επι εχθρους το στομα μου ευφρανθην εν σωτηρια σου

And [she] said, "My heart in master was [under]stood; my horn in my god was [raised] high; to enemy [attention] my mouth was opened: blessed sounds [and songs of giving thanks] in your salvation!"